forum.christogenea.org

My last post was my welcome page addition a few months back, but i have not been sleeping. I felt it was better i educate myself before reasoning in some of the heavy debates i see spoken of in much of this forum, and i am not done educating myself. However, i am having trouble coming to a complete understanding on a few things.

I understand it is a common conflict here to have newbies ask a raging torrent of questions that have clearly already been answered, and i am trying to stray from fitting the same shoes, please be patient with me. The Seed-Line doctrine has too thick of a biblical foundation to be a new or recent idea, i have read that it was taught among teachers in biblical times but have yet to find any proof. any research i have done traces it to 9th century and no earlier. are there resources that a fairly new student like myself could access?

Also, i have yet to find a very direct description of who the gentiles are, and why the Bible is not implying all people when it says all people in the new testimate. some direction would be much appreciated.

Wow, seedline doctrine was taught by Moses, by Christ, by Jude, by Peter, by John and by Paul. It was taught by Tertullian and Justin Martyr, although their statements were brief. In the first century, Judaean and Greek Israelites could not be told apart from Judaean and Greek Canaanite-Edomites, as Josephus illustrates and as the apostles attest. So it was the Gospel that divided wheat from tares, and that is the message which God Himself had chose. So that is also what early Christians adhered to.

Who the "gentiles" are is taught throughout the letters of Paul. See here:

http://christogenea.org/podcasts/epistl ... 05-02-2014

and here:

http://christogenea.org/podcasts/epistl ... ding-flesh

for starters.

There are no simple one-verse answers to these things. I am not saying you are looking for that. But no matter how well you understand these things, learning is always a drawn-out process which one must choose to undergo. No matter how well you become established in what you come to believe as truth, it will always be challenged and it will always be that same process over again teaching others.

Colston wrote:Also, i have yet to find a very direct description of who the gentiles are, and why the Bible is not implying all people when it says all people in the new testimate. some direction would be much appreciated.

http://kinsmanredeemer.com/Gentile.htm

http://israelect.com/reference/ArnoldKe ... %20etc.pdf

Mark

The Biblical heritage series emphasizes covenant theology.
I think that is the best way to understand the Bible, the old and new testaments.

CI is focused on covenant theology.
The covenant with one people, the transgression. The redemption. The remarriage.

Joe wrote:The Biblical heritage series emphasizes covenant theology.

http://www.yourbiblicalheritage.com

Mark

Thanks Mark.

I just wanted to add:
As Bill has said, Scripture does not contradict itself, if Christ said He only came for the lost sheep of Israel (Matthew 15:24) you cannot imagine that He misspoke or changed His mind or forgot to say something.

You cannot go and dig-up another part of Scripture to contend with that plain statement, by doing so you are asserting that God's word contradicts itself. You have to understand the context. And we know that at the Judgement of Nations there is no universal salvation, so He didn't change His mind.

So if it says 'all Nations' we have to understand the context. "His seed became many Nations", all those nations. All creation, all the Adamic creation. That is often the context. But of-course I am making a brief explanation.

How was the context defined before a specific verse.

Thank you for the quick responses, and i agree with the long-drawn out process - i am in the middle of it. thank you for the direction, i will get started.

Joe wrote:So if it says 'all Nations' we have to understand the context. "His seed became many Nations", all those nations. All creation, all the Adamic creation. That is often the context. But of-course I am making a brief explanation.
How was the context defined before a specific verse.

In Jeremiah chapter 30 Yahweh wrote:11 For I am with thee, saith the LORD, to save thee: though I make a full end of all nations whither I have scattered thee, yet will I not make a full end of thee: but I will correct thee in measure, and will not leave thee altogether unpunished.

Therefore, if all means all, the only thing left at the end is all Israel.

Joe wrote:So if it says 'all Nations' we have to understand the context. "His seed became many Nations", all those nations. All creation, all the Adamic creation. That is often the context. But of-course I am making a brief explanation.

How was the context defined before a specific verse.

Just so there's no doubt about it; our race is exclusive to all others: "Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ" Galatians 3:16.

"Now to Abraham the promises have been spoken, and to his offspring. It does not say “and to offsprings”, as of many; but as of one: “and to your offspring,” which are anointed" CNT.

Mark

Is there a church in the Visalia / Fresno area of California that teaches CI? or a site that i could go to to find one?