How Jews Deny Patrilineal Descent

[EzraLB]

I've often wondered how the jews can believe that their are truly descendants of the ancient patriarchs of the Old Testament if they trace their ancestry and identity through the mother. One would think that their matrilineal descent is, in and of itself, proof that they can't possibly be direct descendants of the Israelites who always traced their bloodline through the father, with the assumption that the mother would be of the same race.

I looked it up in the Jewish Virtual Library, and was not surprised to find one of the most convoluted and illogical explanations of how jews can rationalize the shift from patrilineal to matrilineal descent. Note that this explanation rarely uses "Israelite" but emphasizes "jew" instead. Quote:

"Many people have asked why traditional Judaism uses matrilineal descent to determine Jewish status, especially because for tribal affiliation, priestly status and royalty, patrilineal descent determines membership.

The Torah does not specifically state anywhere that matrilineal descent should be used; however, there are several passages in the Torah where the child of a Jewish woman and a non-Jewish man is considered a Jew, and several other passages where the child of a non-Jewish woman and a Jewish man is not considered a Jew.

In Deuteronomy 7:1-5, G-d prohibits intermarriage, saying "he [ie, the non-Jewish male spouse] will cause your child to turn away from Me and they will worship the gods of others." The Torah does not include a similar concern is for the child of a non-Jewish female spouse. From this, one can infer that a child of a non-Jewish male spouse is Jewish and can be turned away from Judaism, but the child of a non-Jewish female spouse is not Jewish andturning away is not an issue. Also, Leviticus 24:10 speaks about the son of an Israelite woman and an Egyptian man as "among the community of Israel" (i.e., a Jew).

On the other hand, in Ezra 10:2-3, the Jews returning to Israel vowed to put aside their non-Jewish wives and the children born to those wives. They could not have put aside those children if those children were Jews.

Several people have asked how King David could be a Jew given that one of his female ancestors, Ruth, was not a Jew. However Ruth converted to Judaism before marrying Boaz and bearing Obed. (In Ruth 1:16 she states her intention to convert.) After she converted, Ruth was Jewish, and her children born after the conversion were Jewish as well. Even so, Ruth is David's paternal ancestor, so Ruth's Jewish identity or lack thereof would not impact King David's status as a Jew because King David's Jewish status is determined matrilineally."

http://www.jewishvirtuallibrary.org/jso ... ojew1.html

[Staropramen]

In Deuteronomy 7:1-5, G-d prohibits intermarriage, saying "he [ie, the non-Jewish male spouse] will cause your child to turn away from Me and they will worship the gods of others." The Torah does not include a similar concern is for the child of a non-Jewish female spouse. From this, one can infer that a child of a non-Jewish male spouse is Jewish and can be turned away from Judaism, but the child of a non-Jewish female spouse is not Jewish andturning away is not an issue. Also, Leviticus 24:10 speaks about the son of an Israelite woman and an Egyptian man as "among the community of Israel" (i.e., a Jew).

I've been sitting here for 15 minutes looking at Deuteronomy 7:1-5 and for the life of me I can't figure out what this crazy bastard is talking about!

This makes judeos seem logical.

[wmfinck]

Clifton recently endeavored to address this same thing, in light of "scientific" claims concerning mitochondrial DNA:

The Fraud Perpetrated in Mitochondrial DNA

The jewish mind is absolutely convoluted, in the way it interprets scripture, ss Staropramen said above. They make absolutely no sense but nonsense.