I came across an archive of the jewish journal, "Occident and American Jewish Advocate," dating back to the 1840s. It's a treasure trove of jewish scribblings, treachery, and machinations.
There you will find a brief article, from 1844, soliciting the help of other jews to uncover evidence that the famous passage in Josephus' Antiquities of the Judeans (Chapter III., § 3) which refers to Christ is fraudulent:
"Now there was about this time Jesus, a wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man."
The article attacks the veracity of this statement, using typical twisted jewish logic--if Christ were truly the jewish Messiah, why would Josephus, a jew himself, mention him only in passing? Quote:
"It is very certain, that if Josephus had believed in the mission of this person as that of the true Messiah, he would to a certainty have said a great deal more about him than he has done, especially since the appearance of the true Messiah must to his opinion, had he believed in him as Mr. Whiston supposes, have been of far greater importance than any event which he describes at length; and still without believing in him, it is certainly somewhat strange to think it unlawful to call him man. It is quite clear to our view, that this paragraph has no connexion with what precedes or follows; and it has, therefore, been held by many, and will be so upon first sight by any unprejudiced man, as an interpolation made at a period subsequent to Josephus to answer certain purposes."
This reference to the historical existence of Christ must be proven to be a later Christian insertion into the original text, he claims. He therefore tells his readers what he's looking for to prove that this one sentence from Josephus is a Christian fabrication:
"Now, we would be greatly obliged to any of our readers if they could inform us, 1. "Whether there are any copies of Josephus in which this paragraph does not appear? 2. When it was probably interpolated? and, 3. Whether the works of Josephus were known to the Talmudic doctors and the Rabbis of the middle ages up to modern times?—Our individual researches have not enabled us to answer either of these questions, and any which can throw light on the subject will be thankfully inserted in the pages of the Occident."
Since the publication of this request, 175 years have passed, and as far as I am aware, no jew has come forward with any evidence to support the jewish contention that Josephus did not, in fact, make reference to Christ. However, in those 175 years it can now be proven beyond doubt that Josephus himself was not a jew at all. Though I doubt that will stop the jews from looking for this "Holy Grail" of jewish "scholarship" which will, once and for all, deny the divinity of Christ.
Source:
http://www.jewish-history.com/occident/ ... quiry.html