forum.christogenea.org

Posted: **Sat Nov 28, 2015 1:41 pm**

I have a question about Genesis 9:27, "God shall enlarge Japheth, and he shall dwell in the tents of Shem; and Canaan shall be his servant."

I understand how this verse has been interpreted as the settlement of Europe--first Japheth and then the Israelites. But I also recall Bill stating at one point that the fulfillment of this prophecy was an on-going process.

My question is this--and forgive my ignorance if the answer is right in front of me--but is there any evidence from Scripture--or ancient history and archaeology--that any of this prophecy was being fulfilled while these tribes were still in their homelands prior to moving up into Europe? Are there any instances of where we might see Japheth dwelling in the tents of Shem earlier than the european migrations? When did the fulfillment of this prophecy start at its earliest point?

Posted: **Sat Nov 28, 2015 3:21 pm**

From Bill's essay on the races of Genesis 10:

There is a certain prophecy, at Genesis 9:27, which reads, “God shall enlarge Japheth, and he shall dwell in the tents of Shem; and Canaan shall be his servant”. Without discussing the part concerning Canaan, this will be discussed briefly here. It is evident that Yahweh surely did enlarge Japheth, for these tribes were spread out over a great area along the southern coasts and eastern borderlands of Europe. Although a separate and lengthy topic, once it is realized that not only the Phoenicians of Tyre, Sidon, Byblos (et al.), northern Africa, the Greek and Italian islands, Spain and Britain, but also the Keltic and Germanic peoples, and the Trojans and Illyrians and Parthians, among others, were all descendants of the Shemitic Israelites, and most of whom had moved into Europe, along with other Shemites such as the Lydians (see Lud below), only then may the oracle at Genesis 9:27 (and most other prophecies in the Bible) be manifest and appreciated.

Aside from the peoples of Meshech and Tubal having been conquered by, and living among the Germanic Rus (and we see here that the Slavic tongue prevailed in Russia), and the colony of Medes moved by the Israelite Scythians to the Tanaïs, which later became known as Sarmatians, and later than that also known as Slavs, these things already discussed above, the other Japhethite tribes moved all along the Mediterranean coasts and into Europe, but were not known as Slavs.

http://christogenea.org/essays/race-genesis-10

Posted: **Sat Nov 28, 2015 5:44 pm**

Thanks, Fenwick--yes, I have previously read what Bill wrote about the tents of Shem in that particular passage. What it sounds like he's saying is that once the tribes of Shem and Japheth had moved into Europe, it was only then that we could see the prophecy was fully realized.

What I'm asking, though, is different--is there evidence from the Old Testament or ancient history that Japheth dwelled in the tents of Shem in any way prior to their movement into Europe? How much time elapsed between when the prophecy was made and the movement into Europe? Did they dwell in the same areas and interact with each other in any way during that time? Were there inter-marriages between the tribes? Or did they somehow manage to be completely separated from each other until after they met up in Europe?

Posted: **Sun Nov 29, 2015 8:20 am**

Persians (Elam) and Medes (Madai) are one example. The Assyrian Empire must have been an earlier one, to some extent. as it ruled over lands occupied by Persians and Medes, and Meshech and Tubal.

Sumer, Amorites, Hittites, Mittani, are all another story. The last three names seem to belong to tribes of the Canaanites, but their ethnography is not always that cut-and-dry, in my opinion..

Posted: **Fri Dec 04, 2015 7:41 am**

In a previous thread on this issue, Bill wrote:

"The twelve sons of Jacob did not marry Israelites! So long as you are of wholly Adamic blood, you are a child of Yahweh God. If your patriarchal line is of the tribes of Israel, you are an Israelite."

viewtopic.php?f=3&t=5405&p=15241&hilit=tents+of+shem#p15241

I understand that racial identity is passed down through the patriarchal line, but I have a question about how a Japhethite's posterity can become Israelite permanently.

Say a Japhethite woman married an Israelite man, and they had a female child, which I would think was very common. According to what Bill is saying, that girl would be an Israelite through her father. However, what if that girl went on to marry a Japhethite man and had children with him? Would their children be Israelite, or would they revert back to Japhethite identity through the father?

Posted: **Fri Dec 04, 2015 3:18 pm**

I think we have to keep in mind that an Israelite is not necessarily a racial distinction, but a political title (within the realm of the White race). Jacob was an Adamite before God gave him a new description/name and he was still an Adamite after. likewise, Japheth was an Adamite and would remain so as long as he did not miscegenate. I don't see why the grafting of the wild olive tree in the New Testament could not include a racially pure Japhethite/Adamite and thus categorically assuming the responsibilities of Israel. God is no respecter of persons i.e. of White people.

Mark

Posted: **Fri Dec 04, 2015 4:48 pm**

Say a Japhethite woman married an Israelite man, and they had a female child, which I would think was very common. According to what Bill is saying, that girl would be an Israelite through her father. However, what if that girl went on to marry a Japhethite man and had children with him? Would their children be Israelite, or would they revert back to Japhethite identity through the father?

Their children would be Japhetite according to the Law. That's why an Israelite woman should only marry an Israelite.

God is no respecter of persons i.e. of White people.

Yahweh is no respecter of the status of persons. But a racial identity, which is divinely ordained, has nothing to do with a social status, which is ordained by a society/world of mortals.

Posted: **Fri Dec 04, 2015 7:11 pm**

bahr wrote:
Say a Japhethite woman married an Israelite man, and they had a female child, which I would think was very common. According to what Bill is saying, that girl would be an Israelite through her father. However, what if that girl went on to marry a Japhethite man and had children with him? Would their children be Israelite, or would they revert back to Japhethite identity through the father?

Their children would be Japhetite according to the Law. That's why an Israelite woman should only marry an Israelite.

Bahr, could you cite the Scripture on that one? Thanks.

God is no respecter of persons i.e. of White people.

Yahweh is no respecter of the status of persons. But a racial identity, which is divinely ordained, has nothing to do with a social status, which is ordained by a society/world of mortals.

Do you mean that God never ordains or appoints the status/stature of a White man? And that doesn't necessarily mean a high and mighty status in society as the head and tail can go either way.

Mark

Posted: **Sat Dec 05, 2015 5:26 am**

bahr wrote:Their children would be Japhetite according to the Law. That's why an Israelite woman should only marry an Israelite.

If the prophecy states that Japheth shall dwell in the tents of Shem, it seems reasonable to assume that this is implying that they will live among each other and that there will be inter-marriage, not just co-habitation in proximity.

After all, if the children of Israel lost their identity over time, how would they know if they were Shemites or Japhethites? Both being of Adamic ancestry, they would have no way of telling each other apart based merely on physical characteristics--and tribal customs would change enough over the centuries to blur even those cultural distinctions.

And If Yahweh knew that they would eventually be living among each other, why didn't the prophecy make any stipulations about not inter-marrying? Where in the Law does it state that certain Adamic people shall not inter-marry?

Posted: **Sat Dec 05, 2015 7:34 am**

Bahr, could you cite the Scripture on that one? Thanks.

It's simply evident, even if there are no particular scripture telling this, otherwise patriarchy would be meaningless. All genealogies in Scriptures don't mention females but only males. Why? Because women don't count, obviously! Either the Israelite woman marry an Israelite and her children are Israelites or she marry a man of an other race and her children are of that race. Yahweh is not the author of confusion. Moses marry an Egyptian woman and the children resulting from this marriage are Semitics-Israelites, not Hamitics-Egyptians.

Do you mean that God never ordains or appoints the status/stature of a White man? And that doesn't necessarily mean a high and mighty status in society as the head and tail can go either way.

Your sentence "God is no respecter of persons i.e. of White people." is not clear and seems to imply that Yahweh doesn't care if a White man is an Israelite or a Japhetite, for example, which would be anti-scriptural. That's the reason of my intervention.

I simply mean that the Law is the same for all men. In this world, men invent all sorts of titles etc then pretend that their title is a justification to bypass or change the Law for themselves. For instance, a king is supposed to serve his people and not use his people for his own interests. Same thing for a general or any sort of title, of course. That's what Yahweh means. It has nothing to do with race.

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