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We detect something is not quite right, something is missing; too many questions remain unanswered. How many of us have read the Old Testament pre-CI days, and asked ourselves, "What the heck does that mean? How does that tie in? How can that be?" And then go look in some dispensationalist pro-Zionist, "the jews are God's Chosen" commentary, which of course, is revered by all your peers, and that explanation seems plausible, even spiritual; it must be! he is a revered commentator; but, although apparently enlightening, misses the mark somehow, so doubts remain, because the pieces just don't fit together without forcing them. Over and over again questions crop up, like a website's pop-up window; but, like Pilgrim, one trods ahead.
Unless Yashusa opens the eyes, blindness prevails. That is the reason it is futile to try to convince others of the truth. Unless Yahweh prepares the heart, the soil will be too hard to let the seed take hold.
wmfinck wrote:NO Greek or Latin manuscript ever contains the word "Jew" anywhere, because the word never existed in that form until the past few hundred years. All Greek and Latin manuscripts of any History or Bible book use only the appropriate form of the word "Judaean". In Greco-Roman times, Judaea was a multi-racial political entity, and that is how the word should nearly always be interpreted. The evidence is abundant that under the Maccabees, all of the races living in Judaea before the Roman conquest were converted to Judaism, contrary to the Old Testament commandments.
So wherever you read "Jew" in the new testament or any other book from the period, know that the original would be "Judaean". The translators and other so-called scholars simply take it for granted that because today's jews are descendants (in part) of the people of first-century Judaea, that they are Judah. THAT is the false assumption.
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