Mosaic Law

[Nayto]

Well I don't think it necessarily means that Moses didn't write it. Moses' writings are very poetic and he uses poetic language. The fact that he chooses to make the distinction between an Almighty God and the Self-existent God might simply refer to the perceptions our patriarchs had of God. He might be inferring that there was hitherto a lesser understanding of God, yet now God would reveal more.

The same even applies today; the racial view of our ancestors was very primitive in that in their recordings God mentioned them in a nationalistic sense, not a racial sense. When it came to who was racially pure and who wasn't, they seemed to be mostly clueless. I mean, when they conquered nations -- Idumea in 150BC being a prime example -- they thought if they became circumcised they'd become Israelites. Christ said, "You must be born of water and spirit", which our earlier ancestors clearly didn't understand. Fast forward to this day and age and we have a rather mature, even complete understanding of what we ought to be doing, even though we are prophesied to still have a hard time telling the difference (wheat and tares).

If a holy, moral mindset is in a poetic sense to have the Holy Spirit, and given how the Holy Spirit is likened to God, it logically follows that we have a better understanding of God today than what our ancestors did. This is my point and what Moses might have been referring to. Does this mean we have another word for God? In sense, yes, in our Deity Jesus Christ. Our understanding of this Character of God has given us new understanding and a new name. We are even called differently i.e. "Christians".

[wmfinck]

Again and again in the New Testament scriptures, in all of the oldest Greek manuscripts, Moses is credited by Christ, by the apostles, by Paul, with having written the books of the law which they were quoting.

Then along come some so-called "higher critics" who deny Christ and the apostles, pretending to know better, because they are criticizing what, some corrupted Masoretic manuscripts?

It was clear that both the Septuagint translators and Josephus had Hebrew manuscripts which were different from those which the so-called "higher critics" had criticized.

So what you are doing, in essence, makes no sense whatsoever. The "higher critics" were clowns. I pray that you go back and rethink this one! I am certain that Christ and the apostles knew a hell of a lot more than the "higher critics" (many of whom were jews) or the rabbinical Masoretes.

As Jeremiah said, "How will ye say, We are wise, and the law of the Lord is with us? In vain have the scribes used a false pen."

http://christogenea.org/content/biblical-exegesis

[wmfinck]

Furthermore, because Moses knew the name YHVH and used it in his writings, recording events long after they had taken place, does not necessarily mean that the patriarchs knew and used the name YHVH at the time that the events which Moses was recording had actually transpired. The "higher critics" are judging Moses by their own perceptions of how Scripture should be written.

EXAMPLE:

Caller: a man just stole my car
911 operator: do you know the man?
Caller: no.

Three hours later the police catch a man in the stolen car, and identify him upon his arrest. They find that his name is Joe.

QUESTION:

In the newspaper the next morning, should we see "unidentified man steals vehicle", because the man who stole it was not identified when the vehicle was stolen? Or do we see "Joe steals vehicle", because after the fact the thief is known as Joe?

Therefore the higher critics unduly question the motives of Moses and God.

Follow Christ, and not the absurdities of a bunch of nineteenth century kikes!

[aleajactaest]

Nayto, » Sun Sep 01, 2013 3:14 pm », said
Well I don't think it necessarily means that Moses didn't write it. ...

You are almost right. In my opinion you should have said :
"Well I don't think it necessarily means that Moses wrote ALL the Pentateuch".

I think, in my opinion, that Moses wrote part of it, but not too much, because he must have had many pressing things to do every day in dealing with such disobedient always complaining stiff necked Israelites for 40 years in the wilderness. (Well, not all of them were necessarily stiff necked ... mostly)
That's why, at a point in time, Moses' father in law suggested him to delegate other honest people to take care of not so important inquiries of and disputes among the Israelites! (Exodus 18:13==>23)
But this is at best circumstantial evidence.

Nayto, » Sun Sep 01, 2013 3:14 pm », said
... The fact that he chooses to make the distinction between an Almighty God and the Self-existent God might simply refer to the perceptions our patriarchs had of God. He might be inferring that there was hitherto a lesser understanding of God, yet now God would reveal more.

But in Exodus 6:3 God reveals His name to Moses telling him that the 3 patriarchs did not know HIM by is True name Yahweh. Isn't reasonable to expect Moses to record exactly what God has just told him and not his opinion about

... the perceptions our patriarchs had of God ...

and/or His name if, and only if, Moses truly wrote the Pentateuch?

However, since I cannot/will never believe that Yahweh made a mistake or lied to Moses, something strange must have happen to the texts of Genesis and Exodus. I think I already know what happened.
But, because I like and need other CII kins opinions, compare these to verses in Exodus:

Exodus 3:15 And Elohim אֱלֹהִים said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Yahweh יָהוֶה Elohim אֱלֹהִים of your fathers(*), the Elohim אֱלֹהִים of Abraham(*), the Elohim אֱלֹהִים of Isaac(*), and the Elohim אֱלֹהִים of Jacob(*), hath sent me unto you: this [is] my name for ever, and this [is] my memorial unto all generations.

Comment: Here there is no mention of the patriarchs' knowledge and usage of God's name, Yahweh.

But verses

Exodus 6:2 And Elohim אֱלֹהִים spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I [am] Yahweh יָהוֶה

Exodus 6:3 And I appeared unto Abrähäm, unto Isaac and unto Jacob by [the name of]
El אֵל Šadday שַׁדַּי, but by my name Yahweh יָהוֶה was I not known to them.

do mention that.

What do you think?

Mind that the distinction of God's name(s) is not the only criteria to propose that Moses did not write most of the Pentateuch.

Next time I will reply to William.


(*) = "of your fathers", "of Abraham", "of Isaac" and "of Jacob" are all qualifiers. This is for later use.