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Does Luke 17: 34 - 35 condone homosexuality?

Discussions concerning the New Testament

Does Luke 17: 34 - 35 condone homosexuality?

Postby worms » Tue Jan 12, 2016 12:55 pm

I am reading the New Testament (King James Version) for the first time and I am confused by this passage:

17: 34 - I tell you, in that night there shall be two men in one bed; the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left.

17:35 Two women shall be grinding together; the one shall be taken, and the other left.

Is this passage describing homosexuals? By "taken" does it mean raptured?

Now when I read the passage that describes two women grinding together, I thought straight away that it must be describing lesbian "sex". But then I remembered Matthew 24:41 which states:

"Two women shall be grinding at the mill; the one shall be taken, and the other left."

That is pretty much identical to Luke 17:35 but instead it uses the word mill, which is more coherent with the rest of the bible than a passage condoning homosexuality.

But what about the passage that describes two men in one bed?

I am wondering whether this passage was translated incorrectly from the original Greek Language. But I wouldn't know where to start on researching this.
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Re: Does Luke 17: 34 - 35 condone homosexuality?

Postby Joe » Tue Jan 12, 2016 2:29 pm

Christogenea New Testament
Luk 17:34 I say to you, in that night there shall be two men upon one couch, one shall be taken and the other shall be left alone.


Young's Literal Translation
Luk 17:34 `I say to you, In that night, there shall be two men on one couch, the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left;


I think I would go with that. The Bible does not contradict itself, so if we have a verse, such as in Leviticus or the Epistles of Paul that condemn homosexuality than we have to re-examine the context and word definitions of one verse that appears to condone it. That is how you stop jewdeoxtians making a mockery of Scripture.
Last edited by Joe on Tue Jan 12, 2016 2:58 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Does Luke 17: 34 - 35 condone homosexuality?

Postby Joe » Tue Jan 12, 2016 2:39 pm

Look what I found while getting the references. Apparently this idiot doesn't realize that Paul also condemned sodomy and said we seek to establish the Law.

From some jewdeoxtian writer
How to Respond to False Teachers

If someone uses Leviticus 18:22 or 20:13 to prove that God hates homosexuality, challenge them on it. Tell them, “Don’t quote Leviticus to me. In Galatians Paul says we are no longer under the Law. Paul said Leviticus is the yoke of slavery, Galatians 5:1.”
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Re: Does Luke 17: 34 - 35 condone homosexuality?

Postby worms » Tue Jan 12, 2016 5:27 pm

Joe wrote:Christogenea New Testament
Luk 17:34 I say to you, in that night there shall be two men upon one couch, one shall be taken and the other shall be left alone.


Young's Literal Translation
Luk 17:34 `I say to you, In that night, there shall be two men on one couch, the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left;


I think I would go with that. The Bible does not contradict itself, so if we have a verse, such as in Leviticus or the Epistles of Paul that condemn homosexuality than we have to re-examine the context and word definitions of one verse that appears to condone it. That is how you stop jewdeoxtians making a mockery of Scripture.


But why does the King James Version say two men in one bed?
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Re: Does Luke 17: 34 - 35 condone homosexuality?

Postby EzraLB » Tue Jan 12, 2016 5:47 pm

worms wrote:But why does the King James Version say two men in one bed?


KJV English is over 500 years old, and how someone in 1600 would have understood "bed" is different from how we would understand it today--and people who like to twist Scripture to support their own agendas often take advantage of this misunderstanding.

From the perspective of an English speaker in 1600 "bed" can have a number of different meanings, depending on context. It could mean bed, couch, resting place, or even garden plot, as in a flower bed. So you can see how the first readers of the KJV would have taken it to mean "couch" as Bill translates it in the CNT.

It is inconceivable that someone in 1600 would misconstrue this word to suggest two men lying in bed together, engaging in sodomy. That's utterly laughable.
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Re: Does Luke 17: 34 - 35 condone homosexuality?

Postby Staropramen » Tue Jan 12, 2016 8:57 pm

I seem to recall Bill saying that in the ancient world meals were sometimes taken while reclining on a couch rather than at a table. The two men could simply be dining together.
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