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"Forgive them Not..." Emphatic Diaglott

Discussions concerning the New Testament

"Forgive them Not..." Emphatic Diaglott

Postby PhillipWMorrow » Fri Dec 18, 2015 4:07 am

http://www.heraldmag.org/olb/bsl/Librar ... aglott.pdf. @ LUKE 23:34 the translation reads " forgive them for they know not what they do". However in the Greek. side by side, it is clearly "forgive them: not for they know what they do". Luke 23:34 The and Jesus said: O Father, forgive them, not for they know what they do. Hmm do I have it wrong? I see they do not print the Greek. However I have a hard copy and this is what it says. Comments? Does the punctuation change the meaning?
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Re: "Forgive them Not..." Emphatic Diaglott

Postby EzraLB » Fri Dec 18, 2015 7:46 am

In his commentary on Luke, Bill explains why he has excluded that passage in Luke 23:34 from the Christogenea New Testament despite the KJV translation being grammatically correct:

"The second is the misconception concerning Luke 23:34, where some perhaps well-meaning but poorly studied individuals like to claim that the first sentence of that verse should be read in part “Father forgive them not, for they know what they do.” Yet the Greek sentence in question is correctly translated as it is found in the King James Version, where it reads “Father, forgive them, for they know not what they do.” The Greek grammar proves that the King James Version translation of the sentence is correct, where in all of Luke's writing wherever a verb is accompanied with a negative particle, forming a negative verb, the negative particle precedes the verb which it negates, and never follows it.

However concerning this passage, in truth the earliest manuscripts are divided, and it is not found in the majority of them. Therefore it is most likely that the passage is an interpolation, and for that reason it is not found in the Christogenea New Testament. Many Identity Christians who have not known this have wondered how Christ could forgive his murderers. However even the context is obvious, that the verse saying “And casting lots they divided His garments” refers to the Roman soldiers, and not at all to the Judaeans who brought Christ before Pilate. Therefore if the statement concerning forgiveness is admitted into the narrative it can only refer to the Roman soldiers, and not to the Judaeans. The Judaeans knew what they were doing, as even Pilate knew they wanted Christ executed out of envy (Matthew 27:18, Mark 15:19), and the Roman soldiers were truly ignorant of the entire situation and were only following orders. Christ Himself told Pilate “You do not have any authority over Me if it was not given to you from above. For this reason he who delivered Me to you has greater fault”, fully indicating that the jews alone were primarily responsible for His execution."

http://christogenea.org/podcasts/gospel ... -23-part-2
"No Rothschild is English. No Baruch, Morgenthau, Cohen, Lehman, Warburg, Kuhn, Kahn, Schiff, Sieff or Solomon was ever born Anglo-Saxon. And it is for this filth that you fight. It is for this filth that you murdered your Empire. It is this filth that elects, selects, your politicians." -- Ezra Pound
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