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Does the Bible presuppose the existence of "spirits"?

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Does the Bible presuppose the existence of "spirits"?

Postby DamianNewman » Wed Nov 06, 2013 9:56 pm

But they were terrified and affrighted, and supposed that they had seen a spirit.

But when they saw him walking upon the sea, they supposed it had been a spirit, and cried out:

These verses imply that they believed in such things.
Could someone perhaps find out what word in the original Greek was used for spirit in these verses?

I have believed for a while now that there is no "soul" that lives on after we die, but rather, we die and are resurrected.
However, these verses have opened up to me the possibility of the more traditional view of the spiritual realm. Help me out here, brothers.
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Re: Does the Bible presuppose the existence of "spirits"?

Postby Lang » Wed Nov 06, 2013 10:28 pm

(edit) - I had translated the wrong word. Staropramen is correct in his translation.

As far as I know, only Adamkind possesses spirit, and thats what make us able to connect with God. As to soul, everyone and every animal has it, its just our personality/character. Bible says our souls are inexistent after death, and if we die the spirit leaves our bodies. I don't believe that the spirit will be left walking in the streets, as a spiritualist would believe. Probably the spirit returns to God.

Maybe the spirits suggested here are demons or fallen angels.
Last edited by Lang on Wed Nov 06, 2013 11:08 pm, edited 2 times in total.
"Give a hammer to a white, and he will build civilization;
Give a hammer to an asian, and he will build other hammers;
Give a hammer to an arab, and he will kill his wife;
Give a hammer to a nigger, and he will kill whites;
Give a hammer to a jew, and he will sell it to niggers.
"

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Re: Does the Bible presuppose the existence of "spirits"?

Postby Staropramen » Wed Nov 06, 2013 11:01 pm

The word translated "spirit" in Mark 6:49 is phantasma.

Strong # 5326: from 5324: [prop. concr.] a [mere] show ["phantasm"], i.e. spectre: -spirit

Strong #5324: phantazo: from a der. of 5316 to make apparent i.e. [pass.] to appear [neut. part. as noun, a spectacle ]:-sight

My understanding is that our "soul" is who we are in a biological and environmentally conditioned sense and our Spirit is the intrinsic being which is a child of Yahweh. Our Spirit is the Holy Spirit of Yahweh that we are born with if we are not broken cisterns [the product of race-mixing]. Judeos lie when they teach that any person can receive this Spirit simply by asking for it. Even though we are born with the Holy Spirit of Yahweh we are still commanded to be filled with the Holy Spirit and I believe that by regularly praying for this filling [as differentiated from the indwelling] we bring our soul into conformity with the Spirit. So yes, I do think that our soul [in a perfected state] as well as our Spirit is present with our eternal, resurrected body.

The non-white races are embodied fallen angels/spirits being held in chains of darkness. Perhaps these chains refer to the physical body of a broken cistern as Clifton Emahiser has written about. I believe that faithful angels that did not rebel are Spirits without bodies that effect the physical world. Fallen angels without bodies that can do the same? Perhaps.
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Re: Does the Bible presuppose the existence of "spirits"?

Postby Joe » Thu Nov 07, 2013 4:51 am

Staropramen says
Fallen angels without bodies that can do the same? Perhaps.

As for the demon-spirits, in the discussion of Luke 8:28-33 presented here last week, it is evident from certain apocryphal literature found in the Ethiopic copies of 1 Enoch and in the Dead Sea Scrolls that demons are believed to have been the disembodied spirits of bastards, especially those bastards produced by the race-mixing which occurred in the days leading up to the flood of Noah. One reference to this is found in the Dead Sea Scroll designated 4Q510, a fragment of what is called the Songs of the Sage, in a part of Fragment 1: “...declare the splendour of his radiance in order to frighten and terrify all the spirits of the ravaging angels and the bastard spirits, demons, Lilith, owls and jackals … and those who strike unexpectedly to lead astray the spirit of knowledge, to make their hearts forlorn.” Another reference is found in the Dead Sea Scroll designated 4Q204, where it says “Exterminate all the spirits of the bastards and the sons of the Watchers....”


http://christogenea.org/content/gospel- ... 07-13-2012

Interesting, I will have to study such things soon. Especially in relation to Matthew 8:28, Mark 5:1. I also think that idol worshipers, and civilizations like the aztecs were worshiping fallen spirits. That is the god of the bastard 'races'.
...and a flaming sword which turned every way, to keep the way of the tree of life.
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Re: Does the Bible presuppose the existence of "spirits"?

Postby Staropramen » Thu Nov 07, 2013 10:50 pm

Regarding my previous comment about the perfected soul being present with both the Spirit and the eternal, glorified body let me give this as an example;

If, in the eternal kingdom there is both music and sports I will still be interested in music and have no interest in sports :D !
"If God is a Jew then the only thing left for us to do is commit suicide"
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http://historicalrecordings.net/
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Re: Does the Bible presuppose the existence of "spirits"?

Postby Lang » Fri Nov 08, 2013 1:53 pm

Staropramen wrote:Regarding my previous comment about the perfected soul being present with both the Spirit and the eternal, glorified body let me give this as an example;

If, in the eternal kingdom there is both music and sports I will still be interested in music and have no interest in sports :D !


Getting a muscular, ripped body without going to the gym is a dream of many people :beer:
"Give a hammer to a white, and he will build civilization;
Give a hammer to an asian, and he will build other hammers;
Give a hammer to an arab, and he will kill his wife;
Give a hammer to a nigger, and he will kill whites;
Give a hammer to a jew, and he will sell it to niggers.
"

J.M.
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Re: Does the Bible presuppose the existence of "spirits"?

Postby Fenwick » Fri Nov 08, 2013 3:32 pm

DamianNewman wrote:These verses imply that they believed in such things.


That's probably the simplest answer really. In the confusion and fright of such a strange sight, it's reasonable to imagine cultural superstition asserted itself and they were afraid they'd seen a ghost. There's not necessarily any Christian connotation there, especially if it's translated from phantasm.
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Re: Does the Bible presuppose the existence of "spirits"?

Postby Staropramen » Fri Nov 08, 2013 5:31 pm

Lang wrote:Getting a muscular, ripped body without going to the gym is a dream of many people :beer:


An StG 44 will do just fine. :D
"If God is a Jew then the only thing left for us to do is commit suicide"
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http://historicalrecordings.net/
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